Immunization Complete Revision MCQs Practice
Immunization is a cornerstone of public health nursing, and mastering this topic is essential for NORCET exams. Understanding vaccine schedules, administration routes, contraindications, storage requirements, and special precautions will not only help you answer MCQs confidently but also prepare you for real-life clinical practice.
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| Immunization Schedule Complete Revision MCQs |
Revising systematically and focusing on the why behind each vaccine ensures long-term retention, helping you recall information under exam pressure. Remember, NORCET questions often test both conceptual understanding and practical knowledge, so don’t just memorize—understand.
Key Takeaways:
- Vaccine Schedules & Timing: Knowing the correct ages for each dose is crucial. From BCG at birth to measles/MMR later, timing impacts efficacy.
- Routes of Administration: Intradermal, intramuscular, subcutaneous, and oral vaccines all have specific techniques. Proper technique ensures effectiveness and reduces complications.
- Contraindications & Precautions: Live vaccines, immunocompromised patients, allergies, and pregnancy are common areas tested in NORCET. Understanding them can prevent errors in both exams and clinical settings.
- Cold Chain & Storage: Maintaining the potency of vaccines through proper storage is a practical skill every nurse must know.
- Common Adverse Effects & Monitoring: Awareness of AEFI (Adverse Events Following Immunization) and appropriate responses strengthens both exam answers and real-world nursing competence.
By practicing regularly and integrating immunization knowledge into your routine study, you’ll build confidence and improve accuracy in MCQs. Repetition combined with understanding is the key to success.
Immunization 200+ MCQs Practice
1. BCG vaccine is given for prevention of:
a) Diphtheria
b) Measles
c) Tuberculosis
d) Polio
2. OPV is administered by:
a) Oral route
b) Intramuscular
c) Intradermal
d) Subcutaneous
3. First dose of BCG vaccine is given at:
a) At birth
b) 6 weeks
c) 9 months
d) 1 year
4. Pentavalent vaccine provides protection against:
a) 3 diseases
b) 4 diseases
c) 5 diseases
d) 6 diseases
5. Measles vaccine is first introduced at:
a) At birth
b) 6 weeks
c) 9 months
d) 5 years
6. Which vaccine leaves a scar on upper arm?
a) OPV
b) BCG
c) DPT
d) Hepatitis B
7. Expanded Program on Immunization (EPI) was launched by WHO in:
a) 1960
b) 1974
c) 1980
d) 1992
8. The term “cold chain” refers to:
a) Distribution of medicines
b) Temperature maintenance for vaccines
c) Storage of blood
d) Sterilization process
9. Hepatitis B birth dose should be given within:
a) 24 hours
b) 48 hours
c) 72 hours
d) 1 week
10. Which vaccine is stored at -20°C frozen?
a) OPV
b) BCG
c) DPT
d) TT
11. Which vaccine is highly sensitive to light?
a) Measles
b) TT
c) IPV
d) DPT
12. The “zero dose” of OPV is given:
a) At birth
b) 6 weeks
c) 9 months
d) 1 year
13. DPT vaccine is administered by:
a) Oral route
b) Intradermal
c) Intramuscular
d) Intranasal
14. National Immunization Schedule (India) is monitored by:
a) WHO
b) UNICEF
c) Ministry of Health & Family Welfare
d) Red Cross
15. Which vaccine prevents neonatal tetanus?
a) BCG
b) DPT
c) TT
d) OPV
16. Measles vaccine is:
a) Killed vaccine
b) Live attenuated vaccine
c) Toxoid
d) Recombinant vaccine
17. Which immunoglobulin crosses placenta?
a) IgM
b) IgA
c) IgG
d) IgE
18. The first vaccine developed in the world was:
a) Polio
b) Smallpox
c) Measles
d) Diphtheria
19. Polio eradication was certified in India in:
a) 2005
b) 2010
c) 2014
d) 2018
20. Which vaccine prevents measles, mumps & rubella?
a) Pentavalent
b) OPV
c) MMR
d) DPT
21. BCG vaccine is given:
a) Intramuscular
b) Subcutaneous
c) Intradermal
d) Oral
22. Which vaccine is contraindicated in immunosuppressed child?
a) BCG
b) TT
c) IPV
d) Hepatitis B
23. Site for intradermal injection in infants:
a) Right thigh
b) Left upper arm
c) Buttock
d) Abdomen
24. Which vaccine is most heat-stable?
a) OPV
b) BCG
c) TT
d) DPT
25. Which disease has been eradicated worldwide?
a) Polio
b) Smallpox
c) Measles
d) Tuberculosis
26. OPV protects against how many poliovirus types?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
27. Recommended storage temperature for most vaccines:
a) 0 to +2°C
b) +2 to +8°C
c) -10 to -20°C
d) Room temperature
28. Whooping cough is prevented by:
a) BCG
b) TT
c) DPT
d) Hepatitis B
29. Vaccines given at birth include:
a) BCG, OPV, Hepatitis B
b) Measles, TT
c) DPT, IPV
d) Rabies, Influenza
30. Vaccine administered orally under UIP:
a) Hepatitis B
b) OPV
c) BCG
d) TT
31. Pentavalent vaccine is given by:
a) Subcutaneous
b) Intradermal
c) Oral
d) Intramuscular
32. Which vaccine is contraindicated in egg allergy?
a) DPT
b) Measles/MMR
c) TT
d) Hepatitis B
33. Diluent used for BCG vaccine is:
a) Normal saline
b) Distilled water
c) Sterile water for injection
d) Ringer’s lactate
34. First vaccine given in life is:
a) DPT
b) OPV zero dose
c) BCG
d) Both b & c
35. Disease condition also called “lockjaw”:
a) Diphtheria
b) Pertussis
c) Tetanus
d) Rabies
36. Pulse Polio Programme provides:
a) IPV
b) OPV
c) TT
d) DPT
37. Which vitamin is given along with measles vaccine in India?
a) Vitamin C
b) Vitamin A
c) Vitamin D
d) Vitamin B12
38. “Drop out” in immunization refers to:
a) No dose received
b) Received first but missed subsequent doses
c) Over-dosed child
d) Contraindicated case
39. Which vaccine needs shaking before use?
a) BCG
b) OPV
c) DPT
d) Measles
40. Full form of OPV is:
a) Oral Polio Vaccine
b) Only Polio Vaccine
c) Original Polio Virus
d) Oral Pediatric Vaccine
41. German measles is prevented by:
a) BCG
b) MMR
c) DPT
d) TT
42. TAB vaccine is for prevention of:
a) Typhoid, Paratyphoid A & B
b) Tuberculosis & Bronchitis
c) Tetanus, Anthrax & Botulism
d) Typhoid & BCG
43. BCG vaccine vial must be used within:
a) 2 hours
b) 4 hours
c) 6 hours
d) 24 hours
44. Vaccine preventing diphtheria:
a) TT
b) DPT
c) OPV
d) Hepatitis B
45. IPV is administered by:
a) Oral
b) Intradermal
c) Intramuscular
d) Subcutaneous
46. Which vaccine is given as 2 oral drops?
a) OPV
b) Hepatitis B
c) Measles
d) Rabies
47. Intradermal vaccine over left upper arm in infants:
a) BCG
b) DPT
c) Measles
d) TT
48. TT vaccine stands for:
a) Tetanus Toxoid
b) Typhoid Toxoid
c) Tuberculosis Toxoid
d) Tetanus Typhus
49. Vaccine given in adolescence, pregnancy, & injuries:
a) DPT
b) TT
c) OPV
d) BCG
50. Vaccine preventing chickenpox:
a) Measles
b) MMR
c) Varicella
d) DPT
51. Which vaccine should never be frozen?
a) OPV
b) Measles
c) Hepatitis B
d) BCG
52. Pertussis is prevented by:
a) DPT
b) TT
c) OPV
d) Measles
53. Which vaccine is a toxoid?
a) DPT
b) TT
c) BCG
d) MMR
54. Hepatitis B vaccine is prepared by:
a) Recombinant DNA technology
b) Killed virus
c) Live attenuated virus
d) Bacterial culture
55. Hib vaccine prevents:
a) Influenza
b) Hemophilus influenzae type b infections
c) Hepatitis B
d) Herpes
56. Recommended IM injection site in infants:
a) Deltoid
b) Gluteal region
c) Anterolateral thigh
d) Abdomen
57. Vaccine used for cervical cancer prevention:
a) HPV vaccine
b) Hepatitis B
c) OPV
d) BCG
58. OPV vial cap color code in UIP is:
a) Red
b) Blue
c) Pink
d) Yellow
59. Immunization means:
a) Administration of drugs
b) Making resistant to disease by vaccines
c) Use of antibiotics
d) Blood transfusion
60. Pregnant women are given which vaccine to protect newborn from tetanus?
a) BCG
b) DPT
c) TT
d) OPV
61. Which Vaccine Vial Monitor (VVM) stage indicates vaccine should not be used?
a) Stage I
b) Stage II
c) Stage III
d) Stage 0
62. Dose of BCG vaccine for newborns is:
a) 0.1 ml
b) 0.05 ml
c) 0.2 ml
d) 0.5 ml
63. Maximum interval allowed between two doses of OPV:
a) 2 weeks
b) 4 weeks
c) 6 weeks
d) 8 weeks
64. Vaccine that can be administered with measles vaccine:
a) DPT
b) TT
c) Vitamin A
d) OPV
65. Correct order for reconstitution of freeze-dried vaccines:
a) Add diluent first, then vaccine
b) Add vaccine first, then diluent
c) Shake diluent only
d) Use vaccine without diluent
66. Vaccine requiring strict protection from light:
a) TT
b) OPV
c) Measles
d) IPV
67. Full form of JE vaccine is:
a) Japanese Encephalitis vaccine
b) Juvenile Encephalopathy vaccine
c) Joint Effusion vaccine
d) Jaundice Elimination vaccine
68. Site of injection for Hepatitis B vaccine in infants:
a) Gluteal region
b) Anterolateral thigh
c) Deltoid
d) Abdomen
69. Storage temperature for diluents:
a) –20°C
b) +2 to +8°C
c) Room temperature
d) 0°C
70. Which vaccine causes fever and rash after 5–7 days?
a) BCG
b) DPT
c) Measles
d) TT
71. Vaccine contraindicated during pregnancy:
a) TT
b) Hepatitis B
c) Measles/MMR
d) IPV
72. Hib in Pentavalent stands for:
a) Human influenza B
b) Haemophilus influenzae type b
c) Hepatitis B
d) Herpes infection B
73. Rubella campaign is targeted to prevent:
a) Congenital rubella syndrome
b) Neonatal tetanus
c) Meningitis
d) Typhoid
74. Which program replaced EPI in India?
a) UIP
b) RNTCP
c) NRHM
d) ICDS
75. Color code of measles vaccine vial cap:
a) Red
b) Blue
c) Yellow
d) Orange
76. Full form of UIP:
a) Universal Immunization Program
b) United Immunization Policy
c) Unique Infant Program
d) Unified Immunization Project
77. Duration of immunity from BCG vaccine:
a) 5–10 years
b) 1–2 years
c) Life-long always
d) 6 months
78. Vaccine used for pneumococcal infection prevention:
a) PCV
b) IPV
c) OPV
d) DPT
79. Which type of Vaccine Vial Monitor (VVM) is used in India’s UIP?
a) Type 1
b) Type 2
c) Type 7
d) Type 14
80. Schedule of TT in pregnancy:
a) 1 dose only
b) 2 doses, 4 weeks apart
c) 3 doses, monthly interval
d) None required
81. Vaccine required for travel to yellow fever endemic areas:
a) Measles
b) Yellow fever vaccine
c) Rabies vaccine
d) Hepatitis A
82. Vaccine used to prevent rabies:
a) ARV
b) IPV
c) OPV
d) DPT
83. In domestic refrigerator, vaccines are stored in:
a) Ice tray
b) Freezer
c) Vegetable tray
d) Door shelf
84. Correct temperature for deep freezers in cold chain:
a) –10°C
b) –20°C
c) +2°C to +8°C
d) 0°C
85. Interval between two doses of TT:
a) 2 weeks
b) 4 weeks
c) 8 weeks
d) 6 months
86. Vaccine protecting against rotavirus diarrhea:
a) Rotavac
b) IPV
c) OPV
d) Hepatitis A
87. Which vaccine is given intranasally?
a) Influenza (FluMist)
b) BCG
c) OPV
d) Measles
88. Vaccine introduced in UIP for cervical cancer:
a) Hepatitis B
b) HPV vaccine
c) PCV
d) Varicella
89. Vaccine used to prevent influenza:
a) IPV
b) Flu vaccine
c) BCG
d) Rabies
90. Timing for second dose of measles vaccine in NIS:
a) 6 months
b) 9 months
c) 16–24 months
d) 5 years
91. Vaccine given to adolescents for tetanus & diphtheria protection:
a) TT
b) Td
c) DPT
d) DT
92. MR campaign in India includes:
a) Measles & Rubella
b) Measles & Rotavirus
c) Measles & Rabies
d) Mumps & Rubella
93. Hepatitis A is prevented by:
a) Hepatitis A vaccine
b) Hepatitis B vaccine
c) OPV
d) DPT
94. Vaccine commonly given subcutaneously:
a) MMR
b) DPT
c) TT
d) Pentavalent
95. Maximum number of OPV drops given at a time:
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
96. Which vaccine vial is discarded after 28 days of opening?
a) BCG
b) OPV
c) Measles
d) TT
97. Main role of Ice-lined refrigerator (ILR):
a) Store blood
b) Store vaccines at +2 to +8°C
c) Freeze diluents
d) Freeze ice packs
98. Vaccine administered along with Vitamin A supplementation:
a) Measles
b) TT
c) OPV
d) DPT
99. Which vaccine carries risk of anaphylaxis in egg allergy?
a) MMR
b) BCG
c) TT
d) Hepatitis B
100. Contraindicated vaccine in pregnancy but given postpartum:
a) TT
b) Rubella/MMR
c) Hepatitis B
d) DPT
101. Shingles is prevented by:
a) Varicella zoster vaccine
b) MMR
c) PCV
d) OPV
102. Safe interval between two live vaccines:
a) 2 weeks
b) 4 weeks
c) 6 weeks
d) No gap needed
103. Which vaccine prevents tetanus in newborns?
a) DPT
b) TT in mother
c) OPV
d) MMR
104. Vaccine given at 6, 10, 14 weeks under NIS:
a) DPT, OPV, Hepatitis B, Pentavalent
b) BCG
c) Measles
d) MMR
105. Vaccine associated with intussusception:
a) Rotavirus vaccine
b) OPV
c) BCG
d) MMR
106. Vaccine mandatory for school entry in many countries:
a) MMR
b) OPV
c) Hepatitis B
d) TT
107. Main role of diluents in vaccines:
a) Preserve potency
b) Reconstitute lyophilized vaccines
c) Neutralize toxins
d) Prevent freezing
108. Vaccine that should be discarded if frozen:
a) DPT
b) OPV
c) BCG
d) Measles
109. Vaccine stored in dark vials due to light sensitivity:
a) Measles
b) BCG
c) OPV
d) DPT
110. Minimum interval between Hepatitis B vaccine doses:
a) 1 week
b) 4 weeks
c) 2 months
d) 6 months
111. Vaccine contraindicated in leukemia patients:
a) MMR
b) TT
c) Hepatitis B
d) IPV
112. Vaccine preventing lockjaw after injury:
a) TT
b) BCG
c) OPV
d) PCV
113. Vaccine preventing both measles & rubella in UIP:
a) MR
b) MMR
c) Measles only
d) Pentavalent
114. Which vaccine commonly causes swelling at injection site?
a) DPT
b) OPV
c) Measles
d) BCG
115. Pentavalent combination includes:
a) DPT + Hep B + Hib
b) DPT + Polio + Hep B
c) OPV + Measles + TT
d) BCG + DPT + Hep B
116. Dose of OPV for infants:
a) 1 drop
b) 2 drops
c) 3 drops
d) 5 drops
117. Special syringe required for intradermal administration:
a) Tuberculin syringe
b) 5 ml syringe
c) 3 ml syringe
d) Auto-disable syringe
118. Vaccine that can be both prophylactic & therapeutic:
a) Rabies vaccine
b) BCG
c) OPV
d) TT
119. Vaccine against varicella:
a) MMR
b) Varicella vaccine
c) TT
d) PCV
120. Correct timing of JE vaccine in India:
a) 6 months & 9 months
b) 9 months & 16–24 months
c) 6 weeks & 14 weeks
d) At birth & 10 weeks
121. Cholera is prevented by:
a) Cholera vaccine
b) OPV
c) TT
d) Hepatitis A
122. Vaccine used in outbreak control:
a) Measles
b) TT
c) BCG
d) Rabies
123. Cold chain equipment used at PHC level:
a) Ice-lined refrigerator & deep freezer
b) Cold box only
c) Domestic fridge
d) Air-conditioner
124. Vaccine requiring sterile water for reconstitution:
a) BCG
b) DPT
c) TT
d) OPV
125. Interval between 2 doses of varicella vaccine:
a) 2 weeks
b) 4–8 weeks
c) 3 months
d) 1 year
126. Which vaccine replaces TT in some countries for adolescents?
a) Td
b) DPT
c) DT
d) IPV
127. Vaccines included in pentavalent in India:
a) DPT, Hep B, Hib
b) OPV, DPT, Measles
c) BCG, Hepatitis B, TT
d) Rabies, DPT, Hepatitis A
128. Vaccine introduced at 9 months in NIS:
a) Measles/MR
b) BCG
c) DPT
d) OPV
129. Vaccine that can be given by jet injector:
a) DPT
b) IPV
c) Hepatitis B
d) Both b & c
130. Effect of freezing on OPV vaccine:
a) Destroyed
b) No effect
c) Becomes stronger
d) Turns toxic
131. Vaccine stored at –70°C ultra-low freezer:
a) Rabies
b) Varicella
c) Smallpox
d) Ebola
132. Vaccine used for prophylaxis after dog bite:
a) Rabies vaccine
b) Measles vaccine
c) TT
d) IPV
133. Site of rabies vaccine administration:
a) Gluteal region
b) Deltoid
c) Abdomen
d) Oral
134. Vaccine given to healthcare workers for hepatitis prevention:
a) Hepatitis B vaccine
b) Hepatitis A vaccine
c) PCV
d) TT
135. Vaccine preventing typhoid fever:
a) TAB vaccine
b) PCV
c) MMR
d) BCG
136. Vaccine that must be kept away from sunlight always:
a) Measles
b) TT
c) DPT
d) OPV
137. Vaccine used for influenza pandemic strains:
a) Seasonal flu vaccine
b) TT
c) OPV
d) MMR
138. Adolescents are given which vaccine for cervical cancer prevention?
a) HPV vaccine
b) Hepatitis B
c) PCV
d) Measles
139. Vaccine protecting against diphtheria & tetanus but not pertussis:
a) Td
b) TT
c) DT
d) Both a & c
140. Vaccine stored in liquid nitrogen:
a) Polio (oral)
b) BCG
c) Rabies
d) Influenza
141. A 2-month-old infant is brought for immunization but is diagnosed with pneumonia. Which vaccine should be postponed?
a) BCG
b) OPV
c) Pentavalent vaccine
d) Measles vaccine
142. The correct diluent for BCG vaccine is:
a) Normal saline
b) Sterile distilled water
c) Phosphate buffer solution
d) Tris-buffer
143. A 5-year-old child received DPT vaccine at 2, 4, 6 months but missed booster doses. Now, the child presents with pertussis exposure. Which is the best management?
a) Give full DPT schedule again
b) Administer DPT booster immediately
c) Only give OPV
d) Wait till child recovers
144. Which of the following vaccines is most heat stable?
a) OPV
b) Measles
c) BCG
d) Tetanus toxoid
145. Which is the correct order of potency loss (heat sensitivity) among vaccines?
a) OPV > Measles > BCG > DPT > TT
b) BCG > OPV > Measles > DPT > TT
c) OPV > BCG > Measles > DPT > TT
d) Measles > OPV > BCG > DPT > TT
146. A newborn received BCG injection accidentally subcutaneously instead of intradermally. What complication is most likely?
a) Abscess
b) Keloid
c) Lymphadenitis
d) No complication
147. In National Immunization Schedule (India), the "birth dose" vaccines include all except:
a) BCG
b) OPV-0
c) Hepatitis B
d) Pentavalent
148. An auxiliary nurse midwife is trained to give all vaccines except:
a) DPT
b) OPV
c) Measles
d) Rabies vaccine
149. Pentavalent vaccine protects against all except:
a) Diphtheria
b) Pertussis
c) Tetanus
d) Polio
150. Which of the following vaccines is live attenuated?
a) Hepatitis B
b) DPT
c) OPV
d) Tetanus toxoid
151. Which of the following is a fractional IPV?
a) 0.5 ml IM
b) 0.1 ml intradermal
c) 0.2 ml subcutaneous
d) 0.5 ml oral
152. The “cold chain” system is designed to:
a) Prevent vaccine wastage
b) Ensure vaccine potency
c) Reduce injection site reactions
d) Maintain sterility of syringes
153. The Vaccine Vial Monitor (VVM) is used to:
a) Detect freezing
b) Detect heat exposure
c) Check contamination
d) Check expiry date
154. The correct site for BCG vaccination in an infant is:
a) Gluteal region
b) Upper thigh
c) Left upper arm
d) Right deltoid
155. Which vaccine is contraindicated in HIV positive child with severe immunosuppression?
a) Measles
b) BCG
c) DPT
d) OPV
156. For measles vaccination, minimum age of child should be:
a) At birth
b) 6 weeks
c) 9 months
d) 12 months
157. A vial of measles vaccine reconstituted at 10 am must be discarded by:
a) 12 pm same day
b) 4 pm same day
c) End of immunization session (6 hours)
d) Next day morning
158. Pulse Polio Programme was launched in India in:
a) 1978
b) 1985
c) 1995
d) 2000
159. A 2-month-old infant has minor cold and mild fever. What should be done regarding immunization?
a) Postpone all vaccines
b) Give only OPV
c) Give all vaccines as per schedule
d) Wait for complete recovery
160. Which is a killed vaccine?
a) BCG
b) OPV
c) Rabies (cell culture)
d) Measles
161. The preferred site for intramuscular injection in infants is:
a) Gluteal region
b) Deltoid
c) Anterolateral thigh
d) Abdomen
162. The "Immunization Act" in India mandates reporting of:
a) All cold chain failures
b) All cases of adverse events following immunization (AEFI)
c) All missed vaccinations
d) All expired vaccines
163. If a child received OPV within 30 minutes of breastfeeding, what should be done?
a) Repeat dose immediately
b) Do not repeat, count dose as valid
c) Repeat dose after 4 weeks
d) Postpone to next schedule
164. In which vaccine freezing is contraindicated?
a) BCG
b) OPV
c) Hepatitis B
d) Measles
165. Which vaccine is supplied as liquid form and does not require reconstitution?
a) BCG
b) Measles
c) Pentavalent
d) JE vaccine
166. Which is the first vaccine administered within 24 hours of birth?
a) Measles
b) OPV-0
c) Hepatitis B birth dose
d) DPT
167. Which vaccine is responsible for Herd Immunity against Poliomyelitis?
a) IPV
b) OPV
c) Pentavalent
d) Rabies
168. Which of the following vaccines can be given during pregnancy?
a) Measles
b) BCG
c) Tetanus toxoid
d) Rubella
169. Which is the correct route of administration for IPV (fractional dose)?
a) IM
b) Oral
c) Intradermal
d) Subcutaneous
170. A child vaccinated with BCG shows no scar after 3 months. What is the next step?
a) Revaccinate with BCG
b) Give DPT booster
c) Give measles vaccine
d) No need of revaccination
171. A child missed measles vaccine at 9 months and comes at 2 years of age. What should be done?
a) Withhold vaccine
b) Give measles vaccine immediately
c) Wait till next campaign
d) Start full schedule again
172. AEFI surveillance is done by:
a) PHC only
b) District hospital
c) National level monitoring system
d) WHO only
173. Which vaccine is stored at -20°C?
a) BCG
b) OPV
c) Hepatitis B
d) Pentavalent
174. For which disease was the first vaccine ever discovered?
a) Polio
b) Smallpox
c) Rabies
d) Measles
175. Which of the following is not a toxoid vaccine?
a) Diphtheria
b) Tetanus
c) Pertussis
d) None of the above
176. Which is the only disease eradicated globally by vaccine?
a) Polio
b) Smallpox
c) Measles
d) Diphtheria
177. In India, the vaccine against Japanese Encephalitis is recommended in endemic districts after age of:
a) 6 months
b) 9 months
c) 16–24 months
d) 5 years
178. Rabies vaccine is administered by which route in ID schedule?
a) IM in deltoid
b) IM in gluteal
c) ID in forearm
d) SC in thigh
179. Which of the following vaccines is highly sensitive to light?
a) BCG
b) OPV
c) Pentavalent
d) Tetanus toxoid
180. Which vaccine requires reconstitution with diluent before use?
a) Pentavalent
b) Hepatitis B
c) Measles
d) OPV
181. Which vaccine is contraindicated in pregnancy?
a) Tetanus toxoid
b) Rubella
c) Influenza (killed)
d) Hepatitis B
182. A child received 3 doses of OPV but still develops polio. What is the most likely cause?
a) Vaccine failure
b) Malnutrition
c) Interference of maternal antibodies
d) All of the above
183. Vaccine vial should be shaken vigorously before use in case of:
a) OPV
b) BCG
c) Pentavalent
d) None
184. Which of the following vaccines is not part of UIP (Universal Immunization Programme) in India (2024)?
a) Pentavalent
b) Measles-Rubella
c) Rotavirus
d) Yellow fever
185. Which organization certifies a country polio-free?
a) UNICEF
b) WHO
c) Red Cross
d) ICMR
186. Which of the following diseases has both killed and live attenuated vaccines?
a) Polio
b) Measles
c) Tetanus
d) Rabies
187. BCG vaccine is contraindicated in:
a) Premature babies
b) Newborn with jaundice
c) Newborn with symptomatic HIV infection
d) Babies with low birth weight
188. Vaccine preventable disease included in Millennium Development Goals (MDG) was:
a) Measles
b) Polio
c) Hepatitis B
d) Tuberculosis
189. The “open vial policy” allows using opened vaccine vials for how long if stored properly?
a) 1 day
b) 2 days
c) 4 weeks
d) Until expiry date
190. Which of the following vaccines is most stable at room temperature?
a) OPV
b) Measles
c) Tetanus toxoid
d) BCG
191. A child with egg allergy can safely receive:
a) Measles vaccine
b) Rabies vaccine
c) Influenza vaccine (egg based)
d) Yellow fever vaccine
192. In case of accidental freezing, which vaccine loses potency permanently?
a) OPV
b) Measles
c) Hepatitis B
d) BCG
193. Herd immunity does not protect against:
a) Measles
b) Polio
c) Tetanus
d) Diphtheria
194. Which of the following vaccines is associated with “intussusception” as adverse effect?
a) Rotavirus
b) Polio
c) DPT
d) Measles
195. What is the minimum interval between two live parenteral vaccines if not given on same day?
a) 1 week
b) 2 weeks
c) 4 weeks
d) 6 weeks
196. Which is the safest site to give intramuscular vaccine in infants to avoid nerve injury?
a) Gluteal
b) Deltoid
c) Anterolateral thigh
d) Triceps
197. A 1-year-old child presents with cough, conjunctivitis, coryza, and Koplik’s spots. The child was vaccinated with measles at 9 months. Most likely reason for infection is:
a) Vaccine failure due to improper cold chain
b) Malnutrition
c) Maternal antibody interference
d) All of the above
198. Vaccine wastage is highest with:
a) DPT
b) Pentavalent
c) BCG
d) Hepatitis B
199. A child is bitten by a stray dog. Rabies vaccine is started. Which additional step is required in category III exposure?
a) Tetanus toxoid only
b) Rabies immunoglobulin
c) Antibiotics only
d) Only wound washing
200. Which is the correct sequence of vaccines given at birth in India?
a) BCG → OPV-0 → Hep B birth dose
b) Hep B → BCG → OPV-0
c) OPV-0 → Hep B → Measles
d) DPT → OPV-0 → Hep B
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