NCLEX EXAM PREPARATION
Child Health Nursing – 1000+ NCLEX-Style MCQs Practice
100 Most Important Child Health Nursing Questions – Part 1
Practice basic recall, clinical application, case-scenario,
practical and mixed-type nursing questions designed to strengthen
your clinical reasoning and exam confidence.
Welcome Dear Students
Hello Dear Students! We are starting our
NCLEX Exam Preparation MCQ Practice Series.
In this practice series, we aim to cover more than
1000+ MCQs from each major nursing subject.
Today we will begin with
100 Most Important Questions of Child Health Nursing.
The questions cover important concepts from pediatric nursing,
clinical practice, child development, common childhood disorders,
emergency care, preventive care and nursing management.
This series includes:
- Basic recall-based MCQs
- Concept-based MCQs
- Clinical application questions
- Case-scenario based questions
- Practical nursing questions
- Priority and nursing intervention questions
- Mixed NCLEX-style practice questions
Why Practice Child Health Nursing MCQs?
Preparing for the NCLEX exam can feel overwhelming, particularly
when studying Child Health Nursing. Pediatric
nursing requires more than memorizing facts. Nurses must understand
growth and development, recognize abnormal findings, prioritize
patient care and apply clinical reasoning.
Regular practice with NCLEX-style questions helps you identify
important clinical cues, eliminate incorrect options and select the
safest nursing intervention.
At UPNURSINGNOTES 📚, our goal is to make nursing
exam preparation simple, structured and student-friendly.
Child Health Nursing – Part 1
100 Important MCQs Practice
🔹 Section A: Low Level – Basic Recall MCQs
1. The normal birth weight of a full-term baby is:
a) 1.5–2 kg
b) 2.5–4 kg
c) 4–5.5 kg
d) Above 6 kg
✅ Answer: b) 2.5–4 kg
2. Posterior fontanelle closes by:
a) 6–8 weeks
b) 3 months
c) 6 months
d) 12 months
✅ Answer: a) 6–8 weeks
3. Average head circumference at birth is:
a) 28 cm
b) 32 cm
c) 35 cm
d) 40 cm
✅ Answer: c) 35 cm
4. The first permanent teeth to erupt are usually:
a) Central incisors
b) Canines
c) First molars
d) Second molars
✅ Answer: c) First molars
5. Average respiratory rate of a newborn is:
a) 20–30/min
b) 30–60/min
c) 60–80/min
d) 80–100/min
✅ Answer: b) 30–60/min
6. Normal Apgar score at 1 minute in a healthy newborn is:
a) 0–3
b) 4–6
c) 7–10
d) 10–12
✅ Answer: c) 7–10
7. BCG vaccine is given by which route?
a) Intramuscular
b) Subcutaneous
c) Intradermal
d) Oral
✅ Answer: c) Intradermal
8. Which disease is prevented by DPT vaccine?
a) Polio, Tetanus, Measles
b) Diphtheria, Pertussis, Tetanus
c) Diphtheria, Polio, Tuberculosis
d) Measles, Rubella, Mumps
✅ Answer: b) Diphtheria, Pertussis, Tetanus
9. “Strawberry tongue” is a sign of:
a) Scarlet fever
b) Measles
c) Mumps
d) Chickenpox
✅ Answer: a) Scarlet fever
10. Which vitamin deficiency causes scurvy?
a) Vitamin A
b) Vitamin B
c) Vitamin C
d) Vitamin D
✅ Answer: c) Vitamin C
11. Normal pulse of a school-aged child (6–12 years) is:
a) 60–100/min
b) 100–140/min
c) 40–60/min
d) 120–160/min
✅ Answer: a) 60–100/min
12. Gower’s sign is seen in:
a) Poliomyelitis
b) Muscular dystrophy
c) Rickets
d) Spina bifida
✅ Answer: b) Muscular dystrophy
13. The causative organism of whooping cough is:
a) Bordetella pertussis
b) Corynebacterium diphtheriae
c) Streptococcus pneumoniae
d) Haemophilus influenzae
✅ Answer: a) Bordetella pertussis
14. Vitamin A deficiency causes:
a) Xerophthalmia
b) Scurvy
c) Pellagra
d) Beri-beri
✅ Answer: a) Xerophthalmia
15. The earliest sign of puberty in girls is:
a) Menarche
b) Breast budding
c) Pubic hair growth
d) Growth spurt
✅ Answer: b) Breast budding
16. Normal hemoglobin at birth is approximately:
a) 8–10 g/dL
b) 14–20 g/dL
c) 10–12 g/dL
d) 20–24 g/dL
✅ Answer: b) 14–20 g/dL
17. The vaccine given at birth is:
a) MMR
b) BCG
c) Typhoid
d) DPT
✅ Answer: b) BCG
18. Normal blood pressure of a 5-year-old is approximately:
a) 60/40 mmHg
b) 80/50 mmHg
c) 100/60 mmHg
d) 140/90 mmHg
✅ Answer: c) 100/60 mmHg
19. Koplik’s spots are diagnostic of:
a) Mumps
b) Rubella
c) Measles
d) Chickenpox
✅ Answer: c) Measles
20. The causative organism of rheumatic fever is:
a) Staphylococcus aureus
b) Streptococcus pyogenes
c) Klebsiella
d) E. coli
✅ Answer: b) Streptococcus pyogenes
21. First dose of OPV is given at:
a) Birth
b) 6 weeks
c) 9 months
d) 15 months
✅ Answer: a) Birth
22. The causative organism of mumps is:
a) Paramyxovirus
b) Rubivirus
c) Herpesvirus
d) Poxvirus
✅ Answer: a) Paramyxovirus
23. Which mineral deficiency causes goiter?
a) Calcium
b) Iron
c) Iodine
d) Magnesium
✅ Answer: c) Iodine
24. First measles vaccine is given at:
a) Birth
b) 6 weeks
c) 9 months
d) 2 years
✅ Answer: c) 9 months
25. Normal weight of a child at 1 year is approximately:
a) Birth weight
b) Twice birth weight
c) Three times birth weight
d) Four times birth weight
✅ Answer: c) Three times birth weight
26. A child doubles his birth weight at approximately:
a) 3 months
b) 6 months
c) 9 months
d) 12 months
✅ Answer: b) 6 months
27. Which vitamin deficiency causes night blindness?
a) Vitamin A
b) Vitamin B1
c) Vitamin C
d) Vitamin D
✅ Answer: a) Vitamin A
28. The “whoop” sound in pertussis occurs due to:
a) Bronchospasm
b) Spasm of glottis
c) Laryngeal edema
d) Nasal obstruction
✅ Answer: b) Spasm of glottis
29. The causative agent of poliomyelitis is:
a) Arbovirus
b) Enterovirus
c) Rhinovirus
d) Adenovirus
✅ Answer: b) Enterovirus
30. Bulging fontanelle indicates:
a) Dehydration
b) Increased intracranial pressure
c) Normal finding
d) Malnutrition
✅ Answer: b) Increased intracranial pressure
31. The average length of a newborn is:
a) 40 cm
b) 50 cm
c) 60 cm
d) 70 cm
✅ Answer: b) 50 cm
32. Which disease presents with Koplik’s spots?
a) Rubella
b) Measles
c) Chickenpox
d) Diphtheria
✅ Answer: b) Measles
33. A newborn’s first stool is called:
a) Meconium
b) Chyme
c) Transitional stool
d) Colostrum
✅ Answer: a) Meconium
34. At what age does the anterior fontanelle usually close?
a) 3 months
b) 6 months
c) 12–18 months
d) 24 months
✅ Answer: c) 12–18 months
35. The causative agent of diphtheria is:
a) Corynebacterium diphtheriae
b) Bordetella pertussis
c) Mycobacterium tuberculosis
d) Streptococcus
✅ Answer: a) Corynebacterium diphtheriae
🔹 Section B: Moderate Level – Clinical Application MCQs
36. A 6-month-old infant with diarrhea is admitted. The priority assessment is:
a) Bowel sounds
b) Daily weight
c) Skin turgor
d) Lung sounds
✅ Answer: c) Skin turgor
37. A child with iron deficiency anemia is prescribed oral iron. The nurse instructs the mother to give iron with:
a) Milk
b) Orange juice
c) Water only
d) Tea
✅ Answer: b) Orange juice
38. A child is admitted with acute glomerulonephritis. Which finding is expected?
a) Generalized edema
b) Tea-colored urine
c) Polyuria
d) Hypotension
✅ Answer: b) Tea-colored urine
39. In bronchiolitis, the most important nursing intervention is:
a) Give high-protein diet
b) Position upright and provide oxygen as indicated
c) Restrict fluids completely
d) Avoid suctioning
✅ Answer: b) Position upright and provide oxygen as indicated
40. A 10-year-old child with diabetes mellitus is unconscious and suspected to have severe hypoglycemia. The nurse should:
a) Start IV insulin
b) Give oral glucose
c) Administer glucagon as prescribed
d) Encourage exercise
✅ Answer: c) Administer glucagon as prescribed
41. A child with cystic fibrosis needs which type of diet?
a) Low calorie, low fat
b) High calorie, high protein
c) Low sodium, high fluid
d) High carbohydrate, low fat
✅ Answer: b) High calorie, high protein
42. Which intervention is appropriate for a febrile seizure?
a) Apply restraints
b) Insert a tongue depressor
c) Place the child on the side and maintain safety
d) Give aspirin immediately
✅ Answer: c) Place the child on the side and maintain safety
43. A child with nephrotic syndrome has edema. Which intervention is appropriate?
a) Restrict protein intake
b) Administer prescribed diuretics
c) Encourage extra fluids
d) Provide a high-sodium diet
✅ Answer: b) Administer prescribed diuretics
44. A 5-year-old has rheumatic fever. Which finding is expected?
a) Koplik’s spots
b) Migratory joint pain
c) Strawberry tongue
d) Gray pseudomembrane
✅ Answer: b) Migratory joint pain
45. Which laboratory finding is expected in iron deficiency anemia?
a) High hemoglobin
b) Low hematocrit
c) High serum iron
d) High MCV
✅ Answer: b) Low hematocrit
46. A child with leukemia develops fever and sore throat. What is the priority action?
a) Give acetaminophen
b) Notify the healthcare provider promptly
c) Encourage oral fluids only
d) Allow the child to rest
✅ Answer: b) Notify the healthcare provider promptly
47. Which medication is commonly used in the treatment of Kawasaki disease?
a) Aspirin
b) Penicillin
c) Iron supplements
d) Cough suppressant
✅ Answer: a) Aspirin
48. A 2-year-old with diarrhea is prescribed ORS. The best teaching is:
a) Give large volumes quickly
b) Give small, frequent sips
c) Mix ORS with milk
d) Stop ORS after one episode of vomiting
✅ Answer: b) Give small, frequent sips
49. A child is recovering after tonsillectomy. Which finding may indicate postoperative bleeding?
a) Mild sore throat
b) Continuous swallowing
c) Decreased appetite
d) Mild drowsiness
✅ Answer: b) Continuous swallowing
50. A child with sickle cell disease is experiencing a vaso-occlusive crisis. Which intervention is appropriate?
a) Restrict fluids
b) Provide prescribed analgesia and hydration
c) Apply cold compresses
d) Give aspirin routinely
✅ Answer: b) Provide prescribed analgesia and hydration
51. A 4-year-old child is hospitalized with nephrotic syndrome. Which nursing intervention is most important for monitoring fluid status?
a) Monitor daily weight
b) Encourage high-sodium foods
c) Restrict protein strictly
d) Stop corticosteroids
✅ Answer: a) Monitor daily weight
52. A 6-month-old with bronchiolitis is having difficulty breathing. Which intervention may be required to maintain airway patency?
a) Give cough syrup
b) Suction nasal secretions as indicated
c) Keep the baby flat
d) Give a large feeding
✅ Answer: b) Suction nasal secretions as indicated
53. The preferred IM injection site for most infants is:
a) Deltoid
b) Gluteus maximus
c) Vastus lateralis
d) Triceps
✅ Answer: c) Vastus lateralis
54. A child with asthma has wheezing and shortness of breath. Which medication is commonly used for rapid relief?
a) Salbutamol
b) Sedative
c) Antibiotic
d) Iron supplement
✅ Answer: a) Salbutamol
55. In a child with meningococcal meningitis, which finding requires urgent attention?
a) Fever
b) Headache
c) Petechial or purpuric rash
d) Mild fatigue
✅ Answer: c) Petechial or purpuric rash
56. A 9-month-old infant cannot sit without support. The nurse should:
a) Reassure the parents without assessment
b) Consider developmental assessment
c) Suggest extra feeding only
d) Wait until 2 years
✅ Answer: b) Consider developmental assessment
57. Which physical feature is commonly associated with Down syndrome?
a) Epicanthal folds
b) Tall stature
c) Long face
d) Increased muscle tone
✅ Answer: a) Epicanthal folds
58. Which intervention may help provide humidified air for a child with croup?
a) Humidified air as indicated
b) Fluid restriction
c) Sedation without monitoring
d) Supine positioning
✅ Answer: a) Humidified air as indicated
59. A child with pneumonia has an oxygen saturation of 86%. The priority is to:
a) Encourage oral fluids
b) Administer oxygen as indicated
c) Delay treatment until laboratory results
d) Encourage exercise
✅ Answer: b) Administer oxygen as indicated
60. A child with diarrhea has sunken eyes. This finding may indicate:
a) No dehydration
b) Some dehydration
c) Fluid overload
d) Hypertension
✅ Answer: b) Some dehydration
🔹 Section C: Mixed NCLEX-Style MCQs
61. The first permanent tooth usually erupts at what age?
a) 4 years
b) 6 years
c) 10 years
d) 12 years
✅ Answer: b) 6 years
62. Which vitamin prevents rickets in children?
a) Vitamin A
b) Vitamin D
c) Vitamin C
d) Vitamin K
✅ Answer: b) Vitamin D
63. The Apgar score is routinely assessed at:
a) 1 and 5 minutes after birth
b) 10 and 15 minutes after birth
c) Only once after birth
d) 30 minutes after birth
✅ Answer: a) 1 and 5 minutes after birth
64. A 4-year-old child should typically be able to:
a) Ride a tricycle
b) Write complex sentences
c) Perform multiplication
d) Drive a car
✅ Answer: a) Ride a tricycle
65. Normal respiratory rate of a school-age child is approximately:
a) 12–20 breaths/min
b) 30–40 breaths/min
c) 40–60 breaths/min
d) 8–10 breaths/min
✅ Answer: a) 12–20 breaths/min
66. Which vaccine protects against whooping cough?
a) BCG
b) MMR
c) DPT
d) Polio
✅ Answer: c) DPT
67. A major cause of infant mortality includes:
a) Congenital anomalies
b) Minor skin infections
c) Dental caries
d) Otitis externa
✅ Answer: a) Congenital anomalies
68. The main immunological function of colostrum is:
a) Provide antibodies
b) Provide only iron
c) Increase body temperature
d) Prevent all infections completely
✅ Answer: a) Provide antibodies
69. Which of the following can be a sign of dehydration in children?
a) Sunken eyes
b) Weight gain
c) Excess salivation
d) Bulging fontanelle
✅ Answer: a) Sunken eyes
70. Exclusive breastfeeding is recommended for approximately:
a) 3 months
b) 6 months
c) 12 months
d) 18 months
✅ Answer: b) 6 months
71. A child with suspected epiglottitis requires:
a) Urgent airway assessment and management by a skilled team
b) Forced oral fluids
c) Throat examination with a tongue depressor
d) Cough syrup
✅ Answer: a) Urgent airway assessment and management by a skilled team
72. A toddler with iron deficiency anemia is best treated with:
a) High-fat diet
b) Prescribed iron supplementation
c) Vitamin C only
d) Sedative medication
✅ Answer: b) Prescribed iron supplementation
73. An important indicator for assessing hydration in an infant with diarrhea is:
a) Urine output
b) Hair color
c) Crying alone
d) Appetite alone
✅ Answer: a) Urine output
74. Which condition commonly presents with a “strawberry tongue”?
a) Measles
b) Scarlet fever
c) Mumps
d) Diphtheria
✅ Answer: b) Scarlet fever
75. In cystic fibrosis, an important component of nursing care is:
a) Airway clearance techniques
b) Fluid restriction
c) Bed rest
d) Low-protein diet
✅ Answer: a) Airway clearance techniques
76. Kawasaki disease can cause serious complications involving the:
a) Coronary arteries
b) Pulmonary veins
c) Jugular veins
d) Carotid arteries only
✅ Answer: a) Coronary arteries
77. A child with nephrotic syndrome commonly presents with:
a) Proteinuria
b) Polyuria
c) Increased appetite
d) Isolated hematuria only
✅ Answer: a) Proteinuria
78. A common sign of meningitis in an infant is:
a) Bulging fontanelle
b) Clubbing
c) Pitting edema
d) Jaundice
✅ Answer: a) Bulging fontanelle
79. Rheumatic fever commonly follows:
a) Streptococcal throat infection
b) Viral hepatitis
c) Influenza
d) Pneumonia
✅ Answer: a) Streptococcal throat infection
80. A child with Down syndrome may have:
a) Epicanthic folds
b) Tall stature
c) Long face
d) Increased muscle tone
✅ Answer: a) Epicanthic folds
81. Which is most useful for monitoring a child's growth over time?
a) One-time weight measurement
b) One-time height measurement
c) One-time head circumference
d) Serial measurements plotted on a growth chart
✅ Answer: d) Serial measurements plotted on a growth chart
82. A preschool child hospitalized for illness may particularly fear:
a) Separation from parents
b) Future career
c) Financial loss
d) Academic failure
✅ Answer: a) Separation from parents
83. A major complication of measles is:
a) Pneumonia
b) Night blindness
c) Rheumatic fever
d) Clubbing
✅ Answer: a) Pneumonia
84. Which deficiency causes scurvy?
a) Vitamin A
b) Vitamin C
c) Vitamin D
d) Vitamin B12
✅ Answer: b) Vitamin C
85. Which finding is classically associated with intussusception?
a) Currant jelly stools
b) Steatorrhea
c) Hematuria
d) Chronic cough
✅ Answer: a) Currant jelly stools
86. In Tetralogy of Fallot, cyanosis is primarily associated with:
a) Right-to-left shunting
b) Left-to-right shunting
c) Increased pulmonary blood flow
d) Increased systemic circulation
✅ Answer: a) Right-to-left shunting
87. The initial medication commonly used for ongoing convulsive status epilepticus is:
a) A benzodiazepine such as lorazepam or diazepam
b) Carbamazepine
c) Oral iron
d) Aspirin
✅ Answer: a) A benzodiazepine such as lorazepam or diazepam
88. Which congenital heart defect classically produces a continuous “machine-like” murmur?
a) Atrial septal defect
b) Ventricular septal defect
c) Patent ductus arteriosus
d) Tetralogy of Fallot
✅ Answer: c) Patent ductus arteriosus
89. A common electrolyte abnormality associated with significant gastrointestinal losses is:
a) Hypokalemia
b) Hyperkalemia
c) Hypercalcemia
d) Hypermagnesemia
✅ Answer: a) Hypokalemia
90. The definitive diagnostic test for Hirschsprung disease is:
a) Rectal biopsy
b) Abdominal X-ray
c) Ultrasound
d) Urinalysis
✅ Answer: a) Rectal biopsy
91. An early symptom of hypoglycemia in a child with diabetes may be:
a) Tremors
b) Coma
c) Kussmaul breathing
d) Severe abdominal distension
✅ Answer: a) Tremors
92. The “sail sign” on an infant chest X-ray can refer to:
a) Normal thymic shadow
b) Pneumothorax
c) Pleural effusion
d) Diaphragmatic hernia
✅ Answer: a) Normal thymic shadow
93. Which vaccine is generally contraindicated in severely immunocompromised children?
a) BCG
b) IPV
c) Hepatitis B
d) DTaP
✅ Answer: a) BCG
94. The classic triad of congenital toxoplasmosis includes:
a) Chorioretinitis, hydrocephalus and intracranial calcifications
b) Cough, conjunctivitis and rash
c) Deafness, cataract and PDA
d) Anemia, jaundice and clubbing
✅ Answer: a) Chorioretinitis, hydrocephalus and intracranial calcifications
95. Failure to pass meconium within the expected first 24–48 hours may suggest:
a) Hirschsprung disease
b) Intussusception
c) Pyloric stenosis
d) Meckel’s diverticulum
✅ Answer: a) Hirschsprung disease
96. In acute rheumatic fever, the most serious cardiac complication is:
a) Carditis
b) Polyarthritis
c) Skin rash
d) Chorea
✅ Answer: a) Carditis
97. Koplik spots are characteristic of:
a) Measles
b) Chickenpox
c) Mumps
d) Rubella
✅ Answer: a) Measles
98. The major pathophysiological process in RSV bronchiolitis includes:
a) Airway obstruction from edema and mucus plugging
b) Alveolar fibrosis
c) Pleural effusion
d) Pulmonary edema as the primary process
✅ Answer: a) Airway obstruction from edema and mucus plugging
99. A child with Wilms tumor should NOT have:
a) Repeated abdominal palpation
b) Blood pressure monitoring
c) Preparation for treatment
d) Routine nursing observation
✅ Answer: a) Repeated abdominal palpation
100. The earliest sign of puberty in girls is usually:
a) Breast budding (thelarche)
b) Menstruation
c) Pubic hair growth
d) Menarche
✅ Answer: a) Breast budding (thelarche)
💡 NCLEX Preparation Tip:
Do not simply memorize the correct option. After every question,
ask yourself: “Why is this option correct, and why are the
other options incorrect?” This habit improves clinical
reasoning and helps you handle priority and case-scenario questions.
🎯 Conclusion – Keep Practicing, Keep Improving
Success in the NCLEX examination does not come
from last-minute cramming. It comes from consistent practice,
strong concepts and the ability to apply nursing knowledge to
clinical situations.
By practicing these 1000+ Child Health Nursing MCQs,
you are not simply memorizing answers. You are developing the
ability to identify important clinical findings, prioritize
patient care, select appropriate nursing interventions and think
like a professional nurse.
At UPNURSINGNOTES 📚, we are committed to providing
students with reliable, exam-focused and easy-to-understand nursing
study resources.
Whether you are preparing for NCLEX or strengthening your
pediatric nursing knowledge, make MCQ practice a regular part of
your study routine.
🚀 Your NCLEX Success Starts With Practice!
✅ Practice daily
✅ Review your mistakes
✅ Understand the rationale
✅ Improve clinical reasoning
✅ Revise important pediatric concepts
Share this MCQ practice set with your nursing friends
preparing for NCLEX.
📚 Keep Learning • Keep Practicing • Keep Growing
UPNURSINGNOTES – Nursing Education Made Simple
Educational Note:
These questions are intended for educational and exam-preparation
purposes. Always follow the current official NCLEX test plan,
institutional protocols and current clinical guidelines for
professional practice.