NORCET Nursing Foundation – BLS & CPR

Test 01 • 50 MCQs • 50 Marks • 30 Minutes

Conceptual + Clinical + Scenario-Based Questions

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Q1. What does CPR stand for?

A. Cardiac Pressure Response B. Cardiopulmonary Resuscitation C. Cardiovascular Pulmonary Recovery D. Clinical Pulse Resuscitation

Answer: B. Cardiopulmonary Resuscitation
CPR is an emergency intervention using chest compressions, with ventilation when appropriate, to maintain circulation and oxygenation during cardiac arrest.

Q2. What is the first priority before approaching an unresponsive patient?

A. Check the blood pressure B. Ensure scene safety C. Start chest compressions immediately D. Give oxygen

Answer: B. Ensure scene safety
The rescuer should first ensure that the environment is safe for the rescuer and patient.

Q3. An adult suddenly collapses in front of a nurse. The patient is unresponsive and only gasping. What should the healthcare professional do?

A. Consider this normal breathing B. Check a pulse for no more than 10 seconds C. Wait for spontaneous recovery D. Give oral fluids

Answer: B. Check a pulse for no more than 10 seconds
For healthcare professionals, an unresponsive adult with absent or abnormal breathing requires a pulse check for no more than 10 seconds. If no definite pulse is felt, cardiac arrest is assumed.

Q4. Agonal gasping in an unresponsive adult should be interpreted as:

A. Normal breathing B. Abnormal breathing that may indicate cardiac arrest C. Adequate ventilation D. Recovery breathing

Answer: B. Abnormal breathing that may indicate cardiac arrest
Gasping is not effective normal breathing and can occur during cardiac arrest.

Q5. In adult cardiac arrest, the recommended chest compression rate is:

A. 40–60/min B. 60–80/min C. 100–120/min D. 140–160/min

Answer: C. 100–120/min
The 2025 AHA adult BLS guideline recommends a chest compression rate of 100–120 per minute.

Q6. The recommended chest compression depth for an average adult is:

A. 1 cm B. At least 5 cm while avoiding excessive depth C. Exactly 8 cm D. 10 cm

Answer: B. At least 5 cm while avoiding excessive depth
Adult compressions should be at least 5 cm deep while avoiding depths greater than approximately 6 cm.

Q7. Where should the hands be placed during adult chest compressions?

A. Upper abdomen B. Left upper chest C. Center of the chest on the lower half of the sternum D. Over the xiphoid process

Answer: C. Center of the chest on the lower half of the sternum
Correct hand placement helps generate effective compressions while reducing the risk of inappropriate pressure over the xiphoid or abdomen.

Q8. Which statement describes complete chest recoil?

A. The rescuer continuously leans on the chest B. The chest is allowed to return fully after each compression C. The chest is compressed only halfway D. Recoil is unnecessary

Answer: B. The chest is allowed to return fully after each compression
Complete recoil promotes venous return and helps maintain effective CPR.

Q9. Why should excessive leaning on the chest be avoided during CPR?

A. It prevents complete chest recoil B. It increases oxygen concentration C. It improves venous return D. It prevents AED analysis

Answer: A. It prevents complete chest recoil
Leaning on the chest between compressions can impair recoil and reduce effective circulation during CPR.

Q10. Before placement of an advanced airway, the standard adult compression-to-ventilation ratio is:

A. 5:1 B. 15:2 C. 30:2 D. 50:5

Answer: C. 30:2
For adult CPR without an advanced airway, 30 compressions are followed by 2 breaths.

Q11. Each rescue breath during adult CPR should generally be delivered over approximately:

A. 1 second B. 5 seconds C. 10 seconds D. 20 seconds

Answer: A. 1 second
Each breath should be delivered over about 1 second and should produce visible chest rise.

Q12. What is a major risk of excessive ventilation during CPR?

A. Increased venous return B. Gastric inflation and reduced cardiac output C. Improved coronary perfusion D. Better chest recoil

Answer: B. Gastric inflation and reduced cardiac output
Excessive ventilation can increase intrathoracic pressure, cause gastric inflation and potentially reduce cardiac output.

Q13. An AED becomes available during CPR. What should the rescuers do?

A. Continue CPR without ever using it B. Apply and use the AED as soon as possible C. Wait until the patient wakes up D. Remove oxygen permanently

Answer: B. Apply and use the AED as soon as possible
Early defibrillation is critical for shockable cardiac arrest rhythms.

Q14. When the AED is analyzing the rhythm, the rescuer should:

A. Continue touching the patient B. Ensure nobody is touching the patient C. Perform compressions over the AED pads D. Remove the pads

Answer: B. Ensure nobody is touching the patient
Movement or contact during rhythm analysis can interfere with AED interpretation and creates a safety concern.

Q15. If the AED advises a shock, what should the rescuer do immediately after delivering the shock?

A. Check blood pressure for 5 minutes B. Resume CPR immediately, starting with compressions C. Remove the AED pads D. Wait for spontaneous breathing

Answer: B. Resume CPR immediately, starting with compressions
The 2025 AHA adult BLS algorithm emphasizes immediate resumption of CPR after a shock.

Q16. A patient remains pulseless after the AED announces “no shock advised.” What is the next priority?

A. Resume CPR immediately B. Stop all treatment C. Give oral fluids D. Remove the AED

Answer: A. Resume CPR immediately
A non-shockable rhythm still requires ongoing CPR and advanced resuscitation according to the algorithm.

Q17. Which of the following is a shockable cardiac arrest rhythm?

A. Ventricular fibrillation B. Asystole C. Normal sinus rhythm D. Pulseless electrical activity

Answer: A. Ventricular fibrillation
VF is a shockable rhythm. Asystole and PEA are non-shockable rhythms.

Q18. Which rhythm is generally considered non-shockable?

A. Ventricular fibrillation B. Pulseless ventricular tachycardia C. Asystole D. None

Answer: C. Asystole
Asystole is treated with CPR and advanced resuscitation measures rather than defibrillation.

Q19. What is the purpose of minimizing interruptions in chest compressions?

A. To maximize effective blood flow during CPR B. To make CPR slower C. To avoid using an AED D. To reduce compression quality

Answer: A. To maximize effective blood flow during CPR
Long pauses reduce effective circulation. CPR interruptions should be kept as short as possible.

Q20. Two trained rescuers are performing adult CPR. Approximately when should they switch the person performing compressions?

A. Every 2 minutes B. Every 20 minutes C. Every 30 minutes D. Only after CPR is completed

Answer: A. Every 2 minutes
Compression quality can decline with rescuer fatigue, so changing compressors approximately every 2 minutes is reasonable.

Q21. A healthcare professional checks the carotid pulse during initial assessment. What is the maximum recommended duration?

A. 2 seconds B. 10 seconds C. 30 seconds D. 60 seconds

Answer: B. 10 seconds
Healthcare professionals should check for a definite pulse for no more than 10 seconds to avoid delaying CPR.

Q22. An unresponsive adult has a definite pulse but is not breathing normally. What should a healthcare professional provide?

A. 1 breath every 6 seconds B. 30 compressions and 2 breaths immediately C. No ventilation D. Oral fluids

Answer: A. 1 breath every 6 seconds
For an adult with a pulse but abnormal or absent breathing, the 2025 AHA algorithm recommends 1 breath every 6 seconds, with pulse reassessment every 2 minutes.

Q23. A patient with a pulse is receiving rescue breathing. What should the nurse reassess regularly?

A. Pulse every 2 minutes B. Hair color every 2 minutes C. Blood glucose only D. Weight

Answer: A. Pulse every 2 minutes
If the pulse is lost, CPR should be started immediately.

Q24. Which finding is most consistent with cardiac arrest?

A. Unresponsiveness, absent/abnormal breathing and no definite pulse B. Alertness and normal breathing C. Normal pulse and normal breathing D. Talking normally

Answer: A. Unresponsiveness, absent/abnormal breathing and no definite pulse
This combination in an adult healthcare assessment should prompt immediate CPR.

Q25. Which is a key component of high-quality CPR?

A. Excessive ventilation B. Complete chest recoil C. Frequent unnecessary pauses D. Very slow compressions

Answer: B. Complete chest recoil
High-quality CPR includes appropriate rate and depth, complete recoil, minimal interruptions and avoidance of excessive ventilation.

Q26. A nurse is performing compressions at 70/min. What should the nurse do?

A. Increase the rate toward 100–120/min while maintaining quality B. Continue at 70/min C. Stop CPR D. Compress once every 5 seconds

Answer: A. Increase the rate toward 100–120/min while maintaining quality
A compression rate of 100–120/min is recommended for adult cardiac arrest.

Q27. A nurse is compressing an adult's chest approximately 7 cm deep. What is the concern?

A. The depth is excessive and should be reduced B. The depth is always ideal C. CPR should stop D. Compression depth is irrelevant

Answer: A. The depth is excessive and should be reduced
Adult compressions should be at least 5 cm while avoiding excessive depths greater than approximately 6 cm.

Q28. What is the recommended compression rate for infants and children during CPR?

A. 40–60/min B. 80–90/min C. 100–120/min D. 150–180/min

Answer: C. 100–120/min
The 2025 pediatric BLS guideline recommends a compression rate of 100–120/min.

Q29. Pediatric chest compression depth should be approximately:

A. One-third of the anterior-posterior chest diameter B. One-tenth of chest diameter C. 10 cm in every child D. No compression depth is recommended

Answer: A. One-third of the anterior-posterior chest diameter
This is approximately 4 cm in infants and 5 cm in children.

Q30. According to the 2025 pediatric BLS guideline, which infant compression technique is recommended?

A. Two-finger technique only B. One-hand or two-thumb–encircling technique C. One-finger technique D. Abdominal compression

Answer: B. One-hand or two-thumb–encircling technique
The 2025 guideline eliminated the traditional two-finger infant compression technique because of concerns about achieving adequate depth.

Q31. In pediatric CPR without an advanced airway, two rescuers should generally use which compression-to-ventilation ratio?

A. 5:1 B. 15:2 C. 30:1 D. 50:2

Answer: B. 15:2
For pediatric CPR without an advanced airway, two rescuers use 15 compressions followed by 2 breaths.

Q32. A child becomes unresponsive after severe choking. What should the rescuer do?

A. Begin CPR with chest compressions B. Perform a blind finger sweep C. Give water D. Wait for spontaneous coughing

Answer: A. Begin CPR with chest compressions
When an infant or child with severe foreign-body airway obstruction becomes unresponsive, CPR should begin with chest compressions.

Q33. Which action should NOT be performed for an infant with severe foreign-body airway obstruction?

A. Repeated back blows and chest thrusts B. Abdominal thrusts C. Activation of emergency response D. CPR if the infant becomes unresponsive

Answer: B. Abdominal thrusts
For infants, the 2025 guideline recommends alternating 5 back blows with 5 chest thrusts. Abdominal thrusts are not recommended for infants.

Q34. For a conscious child with severe foreign-body airway obstruction, the 2025 guideline recommends repeated cycles of:

A. 5 back blows followed by 5 abdominal thrusts B. 10 abdominal thrusts only C. 5 chest compressions only D. Water followed by coughing

Answer: A. 5 back blows followed by 5 abdominal thrusts
The updated 2025 approach uses alternating cycles beginning with 5 back blows followed by 5 abdominal thrusts in children.

Q35. Blind finger sweeps in a child with suspected foreign-body airway obstruction are:

A. Recommended routinely B. Not recommended C. Mandatory before every breath D. Required in every choking patient

Answer: B. Not recommended
Blind finger sweeps can push an object deeper and should not be performed. Remove a foreign body only if it is visible and can be safely removed.

Q36. An adult suddenly collapses and is suspected of having an opioid overdose. Which additional intervention may be considered?

A. Naloxone when available and appropriate B. Oral antibiotics C. Insulin D. Diuretics

Answer: A. Naloxone when available and appropriate
The 2025 adult BLS algorithm incorporates opioid antagonist use, such as naloxone, in suspected opioid-related emergencies.

Q37. A patient is unconscious, has abnormal breathing and no definite pulse after 10 seconds of assessment. What is the priority?

A. Start CPR B. Obtain a urine sample C. Give oral medication D. Wait for laboratory results

Answer: A. Start CPR
When no definite pulse is felt within 10 seconds in an unresponsive adult with abnormal breathing, CPR should be initiated immediately.

Q38. Which action best describes effective AED use?

A. Follow the AED's voice/visual prompts B. Ignore the AED prompts C. Touch the patient during shock delivery D. Remove pads before analysis

Answer: A. Follow the AED's voice/visual prompts
AEDs guide rescuers through rhythm analysis and shock delivery. Follow the device instructions and ensure everyone is clear when instructed.

Q39. During CPR, the nurse notices that chest compressions are repeatedly interrupted for long periods. What should the nurse prioritize?

A. Minimize interruptions and resume compressions promptly B. Increase the duration of pauses C. Stop CPR every minute D. Perform only ventilations

Answer: A. Minimize interruptions and resume compressions promptly
High-quality CPR requires minimizing interruptions in chest compressions.

Q40. A patient has a pulse but is not breathing normally. Which finding would indicate deterioration to cardiac arrest?

A. Loss of pulse B. Normal breathing C. Improved consciousness D. Normal skin color

Answer: A. Loss of pulse
If the pulse is lost, the rescuer should immediately transition to CPR.

Q41. Which statement about adult CPR is correct?

A. Compression depth should be at least 5 cm but excessive depth should be avoided B. Compress at 50/min C. Never allow chest recoil D. Give unlimited breaths

Answer: A. Compression depth should be at least 5 cm but excessive depth should be avoided
Adult CPR quality depends on appropriate rate, depth, recoil, minimal interruptions and appropriate ventilation.

Q42. Which patient should receive adult rather than pediatric BLS according to age-related guidance?

A. A person with signs of puberty B. Every newborn C. Every infant D. Only patients older than 30 years

Answer: A. A person with signs of puberty
The 2025 AHA guidelines state that patients with signs of puberty are treated using adult BLS recommendations.

Q43. A nurse is performing CPR and notices the chest does not visibly rise during ventilation. What should be assessed?

A. Airway opening and mask seal B. Blood glucose only C. Patient's weight D. Temperature only

Answer: A. Airway opening and mask seal
Failure of visible chest rise can result from inadequate airway opening, poor mask seal or other ventilation problems.

Q44. Which technique is particularly effective for two-rescuer bag-mask ventilation?

A. One rescuer uses both hands for mask seal while the other squeezes the bag B. Both rescuers squeeze separate bags randomly C. No airway opening D. Compress the abdomen during ventilation

Answer: A. One rescuer uses both hands for mask seal while the other squeezes the bag
Two trained rescuers can provide more effective bag-mask ventilation by optimizing the mask seal and airway while the second rescuer ventilates.

Q45. What is the main goal of the Chain of Survival?

A. Provide a coordinated sequence of interventions that improves survival from cardiac arrest B. Delay CPR until hospital arrival C. Replace CPR with medication D. Avoid defibrillation

Answer: A. Provide a coordinated sequence of interventions that improves survival from cardiac arrest
The Chain of Survival emphasizes timely recognition, CPR, defibrillation, advanced care and other coordinated resuscitation steps.

Q46. A patient suddenly collapses in a hospital corridor. Which action should occur early in the response?

A. Activate the emergency response system and obtain an AED B. Take the patient to the cafeteria C. Wait for family members D. Complete documentation before assessment

Answer: A. Activate the emergency response system and obtain an AED
Early activation of emergency response and rapid access to defibrillation are essential components of adult BLS.

Q47. Why is early defibrillation important in ventricular fibrillation?

A. It can terminate a shockable rhythm and allow organized cardiac activity to return B. It replaces all CPR C. It treats asystole with a shock D. It prevents the need for assessment

Answer: A. It can terminate a shockable rhythm and allow organized cardiac activity to return
Prompt defibrillation is critical for shockable rhythms such as VF and pulseless VT.

Q48. Which situation requires immediate transition from rescue breathing to CPR?

A. A patient with a pulse develops pulselessness B. A patient begins breathing normally C. A patient becomes alert D. A patient has a strong pulse

Answer: A. A patient with a pulse develops pulselessness
Loss of pulse indicates cardiac arrest and requires immediate initiation of CPR.

Q49. Which action is inappropriate during CPR?

A. Maintaining complete chest recoil B. Maintaining 100–120 compressions/min C. Providing excessive ventilation D. Minimizing interruptions

Answer: C. Providing excessive ventilation
Excessive ventilation can reduce cardiac output and increase the risk of gastric inflation and aspiration.

Q50. Which statement best summarizes high-quality BLS?

A. Rapid recognition, effective CPR, early AED use and minimal interruptions B. Delay CPR until a doctor arrives C. Give maximum oxygen to everyone without assessment D. Avoid AED use

Answer: A. Rapid recognition, effective CPR, early AED use and minimal interruptions
High-quality BLS depends on rapid recognition, early CPR, appropriate ventilation, prompt defibrillation when indicated and coordinated emergency response.

NORCET Exams Preparation Series - Day 2 ( BLS/CPR )