50 Most Important MCQs on Neural Tube Defects (NTDs) for NORCET Exam Preparation

Introduction

If you are preparing for the NORCET exam 2025 (Nursing Officer Recruitment Common Eligibility Test), understanding Neural Tube Defects (NTDs) is crucial. These congenital conditions are frequently asked in NORCET Nursing Officer exams, making them a high-yield topic for your preparation.

Free NORCET Exams Preparation Series
Free NORCET Exams Preparation Series 2025

The key to success is concept clarity + MCQ practice. You don’t just need to study theory—you need to practice exam-style questions, revise smartly, and focus on high-yield nursing topics.

At UPNURSINGNOTES 📚, we provide exam-focused resources, including notes, practice MCQs, and tips to help nursing students succeed in competitive exams.


Why MCQs Are Important for NORCET

The NORCET Nursing Officer exam is entirely MCQ-based. Practicing questions will help you:

  • Reinforce key concepts of NTDs notes pdf
  • Improve accuracy and speed in answering
  • Learn exam tricks like eliminating wrong options
  • Identify weak areas for focused study

👉 That’s why UPNURSINGNOTES 📚 has created a set of 50 NTD-related MCQs with answers and explanations for NORCET 2025.

Note

Before attempting the 50 MCQs on Neural Tube Defects (NTDs), make sure to go through the complete PDF notes available at UPNURSINGNOTES 📚 for detailed preparation.

Read About NTDs -


How to Prepare for NORCET 2025

  1. Focus on High-Yield Topics – NTDs, congenital disorders, pediatric nursing, maternal health, and medical-surgical nursing.
  2. Make Short Notes – Highlight causes, types, prevention, and nursing management of NTDs.
  3. Daily MCQ Practice – Solve 30–50 questions daily to build speed and confidence.
  4. Time Management – Use mock tests to simulate exam conditions.
  5. Revise Important Facts – Lab values, dosages, interventions, and common complications.

50 Most Important MCQs on NTDs – NORCET Practice

Now let’s get into the exam-ready practice questions:

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  1. Neural tube defects primarily result from failure of:
    a) Neuronal migration
    b) Neural crest cell differentiation
    c) Neural tube closure
    d) Synapse formation
    Answer: c) Neural tube closure
    Explanation: NTDs occur when the neural tube fails to close properly between the 3rd–4th week of embryogenesis.

  2. The most common site of neural tube defect is:
    a) Cranial region
    b) Cervical region
    c) Lumbosacral region
    d) Thoracic region
    Answer: c) Lumbosacral region
    Explanation: Majority of NTDs, especially spina bifida, occur in the lumbosacral region.

  3. Which vitamin deficiency is most strongly associated with NTDs?
    a) Vitamin A
    b) Folic acid
    c) Vitamin D
    d) Vitamin B12
    Answer: b) Folic acid
    Explanation: Periconceptional folic acid deficiency is the leading preventable cause of NTDs.

  4. The recommended folic acid dose for primary prevention of NTDs in women of reproductive age is:
    a) 100 mcg/day
    b) 200 mcg/day
    c) 400 mcg/day
    d) 1 mg/day
    Answer: c) 400 mcg/day
    Explanation: WHO and CDC recommend 400 mcg folic acid supplementation daily to prevent NTDs.

  5. Failure of closure of the anterior neuropore leads to:
    a) Spina bifida
    b) Meningocele
    c) Anencephaly
    d) Hydrocephalus
    Answer: c) Anencephaly
    Explanation: Anterior neuropore closure defect results in absence of major portions of brain and skull.

  6. Failure of closure of the posterior neuropore leads to:
    a) Encephalocele
    b) Spina bifida
    c) Microcephaly
    d) Arnold-Chiari malformation
    Answer: b) Spina bifida
    Explanation: Posterior neuropore defects result in spina bifida, commonly in the lumbosacral area.

  7. Spina bifida occulta is characterized by:
    a) Visible sac containing meninges and CSF
    b) Only vertebral arch defect, usually asymptomatic
    c) Herniation of brain tissue
    d) Severe neurological deficit
    Answer: b) Only vertebral arch defect, usually asymptomatic
    Explanation: Occulta is the mildest form, often presenting with a tuft of hair or dimple over the defect.

  8. In meningocele, the defect contains:
    a) Only spinal cord
    b) Meninges and CSF
    c) Spinal cord and nerves only
    d) Brain tissue
    Answer: b) Meninges and CSF
    Explanation: Meningocele involves protrusion of meninges and CSF without neural tissue.

  9. Myelomeningocele differs from meningocele because it contains:
    a) Only CSF
    b) Only meninges
    c) Spinal cord and nerves
    d) Brain tissue
    Answer: c) Spinal cord and nerves
    Explanation: Myelomeningocele is more severe as it involves spinal cord and nerve roots in the sac.

  10. Which of the following is NOT an example of a neural tube defect?
    a) Anencephaly
    b) Spina bifida
    c) Encephalocele
    d) Hydrocephalus
    Answer: d) Hydrocephalus
    Explanation: Hydrocephalus is often associated with NTDs but not classified as an NTD itself.

  11. The most severe form of spina bifida is:
    a) Spina bifida occulta
    b) Meningocele
    c) Myelomeningocele
    d) Encephalocele
    Answer: c) Myelomeningocele
    Explanation: Myelomeningocele involves neural tissue and causes significant neurological deficits.

  12. Anencephaly is incompatible with life because of absence of:
    a) Brainstem
    b) Cerebral hemispheres
    c) Spinal cord
    d) Cerebellum
    Answer: b) Cerebral hemispheres
    Explanation: Absence of cerebral hemispheres leads to immediate or early neonatal death.

  13. Encephalocele most commonly occurs at which site?
    a) Occipital region
    b) Frontal region
    c) Temporal region
    d) Parietal region
    Answer: a) Occipital region
    Explanation: Most encephaloceles occur in the occipital region, followed by frontal.

  14. Which investigation is most useful for prenatal detection of NTDs?
    a) CT scan
    b) Amniotic fluid AFP and ultrasound
    c) MRI brain
    d) X-ray spine
    Answer: b) Amniotic fluid AFP and ultrasound
    Explanation: Elevated maternal serum AFP and detailed ultrasound are screening and diagnostic tools for NTDs.

  15. Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) is elevated in maternal serum and amniotic fluid in:
    a) Spina bifida
    b) Down syndrome
    c) Turner syndrome
    d) Edwards syndrome
    Answer: a) Spina bifida
    Explanation: Open NTDs leak AFP into amniotic fluid, which is then reflected in maternal serum.

  1. Neural tube closure normally completes by:
    a) Day 7–10 of gestation
    b) Day 14–18 of gestation
    c) Day 21–28 of gestation
    d) Day 35–40 of gestation
    Answer: c) Day 21–28 of gestation
    Explanation: The neural tube closes by the 4th week of embryonic life (day 28).

  2. Which maternal condition increases the risk of NTDs?
    a) Hypothyroidism
    b) Diabetes mellitus
    c) Asthma
    d) Anemia
    Answer: b) Diabetes mellitus
    Explanation: Pre-gestational diabetes is a known teratogenic factor associated with NTDs.

  3. Which anticonvulsant drug is strongly associated with NTDs?
    a) Phenytoin
    b) Valproic acid
    c) Carbamazepine
    d) Phenobarbital
    Answer: b) Valproic acid
    Explanation: Valproic acid interferes with folate metabolism and is a high-risk drug for NTDs.

  4. Which genetic condition is most associated with NTDs?
    a) Trisomy 21
    b) Trisomy 13
    c) Trisomy 18
    d) Turner syndrome
    Answer: b) Trisomy 13
    Explanation: Trisomy 13 (Patau syndrome) often presents with midline defects including NTDs.

  5. Which type of spina bifida is usually detected incidentally on X-ray?
    a) Spina bifida occulta
    b) Meningocele
    c) Myelomeningocele
    d) Encephalocele
    Answer: a) Spina bifida occulta
    Explanation: Occulta is asymptomatic and usually discovered on imaging for other reasons.

  6. A tuft of hair over the lumbosacral spine in a newborn suggests:
    a) Encephalocele
    b) Spina bifida occulta
    c) Anencephaly
    d) Hydrocephalus
    Answer: b) Spina bifida occulta
    Explanation: Cutaneous stigmata like hair tufts, dimples, or lipomas indicate spina bifida occulta.

  7. Which imaging modality is best to evaluate spinal cord involvement in NTDs?
    a) Ultrasound
    b) CT scan
    c) MRI
    d) X-ray
    Answer: c) MRI
    Explanation: MRI provides detailed visualization of neural tissue involvement in NTDs.

  8. The Arnold–Chiari malformation is most commonly associated with:
    a) Spina bifida occulta
    b) Myelomeningocele
    c) Meningocele
    d) Encephalocele
    Answer: b) Myelomeningocele
    Explanation: Chiari II malformation is classically linked with myelomeningocele.

  9. Which clinical finding is common in newborns with myelomeningocele?
    a) Hypertonia of lower limbs
    b) Flaccid paralysis of lower limbs
    c) Normal motor function
    d) Increased reflexes
    Answer: b) Flaccid paralysis of lower limbs
    Explanation: Myelomeningocele damages motor nerves, leading to flaccid paralysis below the lesion.

  10. The most appropriate initial management of a newborn with open myelomeningocele is:
    a) Immediate surgical closure
    b) Covering sac with sterile moist dressing
    c) Daily saline cleaning
    d) Antibiotics only
    Answer: b) Covering sac with sterile moist dressing
    Explanation: First priority is to prevent infection and trauma before surgical repair.

  11. When is surgical repair of myelomeningocele ideally performed?
    a) Within 24–48 hours of birth
    b) At 1 month of age
    c) At 6 months of age
    d) After 1 year of age
    Answer: a) Within 24–48 hours of birth
    Explanation: Early closure reduces risk of meningitis and further neural damage.

  12. Which associated condition is commonly seen in infants with myelomeningocele?
    a) Hydrocephalus
    b) Microcephaly
    c) Craniosynostosis
    d) Cerebral palsy
    Answer: a) Hydrocephalus
    Explanation: Up to 80% of myelomeningocele cases have hydrocephalus due to Chiari II malformation.

  13. Which prenatal supplement reduces the risk of NTD recurrence in high-risk women?
    a) 400 mcg folic acid daily
    b) 1 mg folic acid daily
    c) 4 mg folic acid daily
    d) Vitamin A 10,000 IU daily
    Answer: c) 4 mg folic acid daily
    Explanation: Women with a previous affected pregnancy should take 4 mg/day folic acid before conception.

  14. In which trimester can anencephaly be diagnosed by ultrasound?
    a) First trimester
    b) Second trimester
    c) Third trimester
    d) At birth only
    Answer: a) First trimester
    Explanation: Anencephaly is often detectable as early as 11–14 weeks by absence of cranial vault.

  15. Lemon sign and banana sign on prenatal ultrasound indicate:
    a) Hydrocephalus
    b) Encephalocele
    c) Spina bifida with Chiari malformation
    d) Anencephaly
    Answer: c) Spina bifida with Chiari malformation
    Explanation: These cranial signs suggest posterior fossa abnormalities linked to open spina bifida.

  1. Polyhydramnios is commonly associated with:
    a) Spina bifida occulta
    b) Anencephaly
    c) Meningocele
    d) Hydrocephalus
    Answer: b) Anencephaly
    Explanation: Absence of swallowing reflex in anencephaly leads to excessive amniotic fluid.

  2. Which maternal serum marker is elevated in open NTDs?
    a) Beta-hCG
    b) Estriol
    c) Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP)
    d) Inhibin A
    Answer: c) Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP)
    Explanation: AFP leaks from exposed neural tissue into amniotic fluid and maternal circulation.

  3. Which of the following is a closed neural tube defect?
    a) Anencephaly
    b) Meningocele
    c) Lipomyelomeningocele
    d) Encephalocele
    Answer: c) Lipomyelomeningocele
    Explanation: Closed NTDs have skin covering; lipomyelomeningocele is one such form.

  4. The most common lethal NTD is:
    a) Spina bifida
    b) Anencephaly
    c) Encephalocele
    d) Myelomeningocele
    Answer: b) Anencephaly
    Explanation: Anencephaly is universally fatal either in utero or shortly after birth.

  5. Which of the following is NOT a risk factor for NTDs?
    a) Maternal diabetes
    b) Folic acid deficiency
    c) Obesity
    d) Iron deficiency anemia
    Answer: d) Iron deficiency anemia
    Explanation: Iron deficiency does not cause NTDs, though it affects overall pregnancy health.

  6. Which screening test is performed at 15–18 weeks to detect NTDs?
    a) Nuchal translucency
    b) Maternal serum triple test
    c) Cordocentesis
    d) Non-invasive prenatal testing (NIPT)
    Answer: b) Maternal serum triple test
    Explanation: Triple/quadruple test includes AFP, which detects open NTDs in the 2nd trimester.

  7. Which of the following is the mildest form of NTD?
    a) Myelomeningocele
    b) Encephalocele
    c) Spina bifida occulta
    d) Anencephaly
    Answer: c) Spina bifida occulta
    Explanation: Often asymptomatic, discovered only by imaging or cutaneous signs.

  8. Which of the following best describes rachischisis?
    a) Herniation of brain tissue
    b) Entire spinal cord exposed without skin or meningeal covering
    c) Herniation of meninges and CSF only
    d) Failure of anterior neuropore closure
    Answer: b) Entire spinal cord exposed without skin or meningeal covering
    Explanation: Rachischisis is a severe open NTD incompatible with life.

  9. Which maternal infection is linked to increased NTD risk?
    a) Rubella
    b) Cytomegalovirus
    c) Hyperthermia from fever
    d) HIV
    Answer: c) Hyperthermia from fever
    Explanation: Maternal hyperthermia during early pregnancy is teratogenic and associated with NTDs.

  10. The lemon sign on prenatal ultrasound is seen due to:
    a) Enlarged frontal bones
    b) Indentation of frontal bones
    c) Herniation of meninges
    d) Hydrocephalus only
    Answer: b) Indentation of frontal bones
    Explanation: The lemon sign is frontal bone scalloping, suggestive of spina bifida.

  11. In a child with spina bifida, which bladder abnormality is common?
    a) Neurogenic bladder
    b) Overactive bladder
    c) Bladder exstrophy
    d) Bladder agenesis
    Answer: a) Neurogenic bladder
    Explanation: Nerve damage in NTDs often leads to neurogenic bladder dysfunction.

  12. Which orthopedic problem is most common in myelomeningocele patients?
    a) Scoliosis
    b) Hip dislocation
    c) Clubfoot (talipes equinovarus)
    d) Bow legs
    Answer: c) Clubfoot (talipes equinovarus)
    Explanation: Due to nerve involvement and muscle imbalance in the lower limbs.

  13. Which of the following is the gold standard for definitive diagnosis of NTD prenatally?
    a) Maternal serum AFP
    b) Amniocentesis with AFP and acetylcholinesterase
    c) Ultrasound only
    d) Chorionic villus sampling
    Answer: b) Amniocentesis with AFP and acetylcholinesterase
    Explanation: Elevated AFP and acetylcholinesterase in amniotic fluid confirm open NTDs.

  14. The recurrence risk of NTD in future pregnancy after one affected child is approximately:
    a) 1%
    b) 2–3%
    c) 5–10%
    d) 20%
    Answer: b) 2–3%
    Explanation: Recurrence risk increases but can be reduced with high-dose folic acid.

  15. In anencephaly, which fetal skull feature is absent on ultrasound?
    a) Nasal bone
    b) Calvarium
    c) Mandible
    d) Zygomatic arch
    Answer: b) Calvarium
    Explanation: Absence of calvarium is diagnostic for anencephaly.

  16. Which anesthetic consideration is important in NTD infants requiring surgery?
    a) Avoid prone positioning
    b) Maintain sterile moist dressing during induction
    c) Delay surgery until 6 months
    d) Avoid muscle relaxants
    Answer: b) Maintain sterile moist dressing during induction
    Explanation: Prevent contamination and trauma to the exposed sac before surgical closure.

  17. Which CSF shunt procedure is commonly done for hydrocephalus in NTDs?
    a) Lumboperitoneal shunt
    b) Ventriculoperitoneal shunt
    c) Ventriculoatrial shunt
    d) Ommaya reservoir
    Answer: b) Ventriculoperitoneal shunt
    Explanation: VP shunt is the standard treatment for hydrocephalus associated with NTDs.

  18. Which type of NTD is characterized by brain tissue herniating through a skull defect?
    a) Meningocele
    b) Encephalocele
    c) Rachischisis
    d) Anencephaly
    Answer: b) Encephalocele
    Explanation: Encephalocele involves herniation of meninges with brain tissue.

  19. Which of the following is an example of a cranial NTD?
    a) Myelomeningocele
    b) Encephalocele
    c) Spina bifida occulta
    d) Lipomeningocele
    Answer: b) Encephalocele
    Explanation: Cranial NTDs include anencephaly and encephalocele, unlike spinal forms.

  20. The best preventive measure for NTDs is:
    a) Maternal iron supplementation
    b) Folic acid supplementation before conception
    c) Screening all pregnancies with ultrasound
    d) Avoiding maternal exercise in first trimester
    Answer: b) Folic acid supplementation before conception
    Explanation: Preconception folic acid intake is the most effective and evidence-based preventive strategy.


These questions are designed to reflect the NORCET pattern and cover all major points about Neural Tube Defects for nursing exam preparation.


Tips to Score High in NORCET

  • Revise previous year questions related to NTDs and other congenital disorders.
  • Memorize key lab values, dosages, and preventive measures (like folic acid supplementation).
  • Practice clinical scenario-based MCQs, not just theory.
  • Stay calm during the exam—manage your time efficiently.

At UPNURSINGNOTES 📚, we always remind students that consistent practice is more effective than last-minute cramming.


Final Words

Cracking the NORCET Nursing Officer Exam 2025 requires dedication, but with the right study material + MCQ practice, you can succeed.

More MCQs Practice 👇

Remember:
📌 Read. Revise. Practice.
📌 Focus on accuracy and speed.
📌 Consistency is the key to success.

Practice the MCQs given above and explore more nursing exam resources at UPNURSINGNOTES 📚, your trusted platform for NORCET exam preparation.


Disclaimer:

This blog post on “50 Most Important MCQs on Neural Tube Defects (NTDs) for NORCET Exam Preparation” is intended for educational and exam practice purposes only. While we strive for accuracy, readers should verify facts with standard references. This content is not a substitute for professional medical advice or clinical practice.

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